Slightly embarrassing question, but I've been taking estradiol valerate (estrogen) 1 mg (once a day) and provera (progesterone) 2.5 mg for two weeks every three months. My question: after being on this regimen for a few years (cue embarrassment), I wonder if I've understood the instruction correctly. I've interpreted 2 weeks every 3 months to mean that the two weeks is within the three months, soooo after 10 weeks of just taking the estrogen I'll take 2 weeks of provera, so the whole sequence is a total of 3 months. But maybe I SHOULD have read it as, after 3 months of estrogen only, then tack on 2 weeks of progesterone, making the whole sequence 3 months and 2 weeks.
Does anyone know (a) which is correct and (b) if it matters? I'd ask my doc, but ... don't want to for lots of reasons, including she's always trying to get me off it and actually, I was the one who relayed this protocol to her from a specialist I saw (after a D&C for thickened lining) back in the day, and maybe I got it wrong back then. Ooops!! (I ask y'all now because I'm about to change from pill to Estradot...at my request, as I want to try it out, and it made me wonder...) Thanks for any advice / insight!